AILET 2009 Question Paper

  
 ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST (AILET) 2009 Question Paper

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes                                             Total Marks: 150                                                                                                                                    

 

SECTION 1 – ENGLISH AND READING COMPREHENSION

 

Directions: Choose the most appropriate word:

 

1.     He is _____ of spelling reforms.

        (a) a protagonist

        (b) an advocate

        (c) an envoy

        (d) a champion

 

2.    Negotiable: cheque ::

       (a) Frozen: Asset

       (b) Inventory: Merchandise

       (c) Bank: Money

       (d) Trade: Tariff

 

3.    Hedger : Shrubbery :: ? : Stick

       (a) Snuffer

       (b) Cougher

       (c) Whittler

       (d) Stickler.

 

4.   Honour : Governor :: ? : Duke

      (a) Excellency

      (b) Majesty

      (c) Highness

      (d) Grace.

 

Directions: The sentences in the middle of a passage have been removed. You are provided with the beginning and the end of the passage and the other sentences in a jumbled order. You are to choose the correct order that will make the passage complete and coherent.

 

5.     I. When Mrs. Bates came down, the room was strangely empty, with

            a tension of expectancy.

        P. Meantime her anger was turned pale with fear.

       Q. She took up her sewing and stitched for some time without raising            her head.

       R. She rushed to the stair door and opened it, listening.

       S: The clock struck eight and she rose suddenly, dropping her sewing                           on the chair.

 

 

6.    Then she went out, locking the door behind her.

       (a) SQPR

       (b) QPSR

       (c) SRQP

       (d) PRSQ.

 

6.    1. Above all,

       P. in the present age of light reading

       Q: it is well if something heavier is cast now and then

       R: of reading hastily and thoughtlessly

       S: that is,

 

6.    into the midst of the reading public.

       (a) PQRS

       (b) PSRQ

       (c) PRQS

       (d) QSRP

 

Directions: In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the Bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

 

7.    Ductile

       (a) Virtuous

       (b) Grotesque

       (c) Contentious

       (d) Stubborn.

 

8.    The Prime Minister’s radio broadcast galvanised the people’s                  spirit.

       (a) Destructed

       (b) Frightened

       (c) Distracted

       (d) Dampened

 

Directions: In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the Bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

 

9.     Obsequious

        (a) Poor

        (b) Cheerful

        (c) Servile

        (d) Sullen.

 

10.    Dialectic

         (a) Argumentative

         (b) Instructive

         (c) Constructive

         (d) Destructive.

Directions: In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error.

 

11. He not only denied/ (a) having borrowed money from me, / (b) but also having ever met me. /(c) No error/ (d).

 

12. The running party stood / (a) for implementation of the Bill/ (b) and was ready to stake their political existence. /(c) No error/ (d).

 

13. If I were he, / (a) I should not/b) accept the post. /(c) No error/ (d).

 

Directions: In this question a paragraph with many numbered blank spaces is given. In case of all the spaces, some phrases for filling up, are suggested. The candidate is to pick up the correct response.

 

________ 14 ________ evening we decided to _______ 15 _______ camp as the weather was not encouraging. The wind was high and ______ 16 ______ storm clouds _______ 17 _______ a wild wet night. Moreover we _______ 18 _______ at a spot which looked ________ 19 ________ for a camp. A level ________ 20 ________ in the lee of a high hill _______ 21 ________ some shelter from the wind; fresh water was near ________ 22 ________ in a storm which flowed across the plain; a ________ 23 ________ of trees provided adequate supplies of fuel; and the dry grass which ________ 24 ________ on the hill side would enhance the comfort of our beds. Each member of the party ________ 25 ________ a task. Some erected the tents; others prepared a scanty meal; yet others ________ 26 ________ to the needs of the ponies, now exhausted after a very strenuous day. As the angry sun sank, the bustle of activity was hushed into silence and each man _______ 27 ______ down to sleep.

 

14.   (a) At the

        (b) After the

        (c) In the

        (d) Before.

15.   (a)dig

        (b) fixed

        (c) plant

        (d) pitch.

 

16.    (a) collecting

         (b) gathering

        (c) accumulating

        (d) moving.

 

17.  (a) preceded

       (b) proceeded

       (c) predicted

       (d) proved.

 

18.  (a) arrived

       (b) have arrived

       (c) would arrive

       (d) had arrived.

 

19.  (a) promise

       (b) promiseful

       (c) promising

       (d) prosperous.

 

20.  (a) expense

       (b) land

       (c) expanse

       (d) piece of land.

 

21.  (a) gave

       (b) afforded

       (c) supplied

       (d) cast.

 

 

 

22.  (a) in hand

       (b) on hand

       (c) at hand

       (d) of hand.

 

 

23.   (a) group

        (b) cluster

        (c) collection

        (d) grove.

 

24.   (a)abundant

        (b) luxuriant

        (c) abounded

        (d) abounded in.

 

25.   (a) allotted

        (b) was allotted

        (c) had allotted

        (d) has allotted.

 

26.   (a) will attend

        (b) had attended

        (c) attended

        (d) would have attended.

 

27.   (a) settled

        (b) settles

        (c) laid

        (d) lay.

 

28.   At a particular speed, a bus starts vibrating violently due to the                        phenomenon of

        (a) Pitch

        (b) Resonance

        (c) Rumbling

        (d) None of the above.

 

29.  When a bullet is fired upward vertically, it gains in

       (a) Speed

       (b) Acceleration

       (c) Kinetic energy

       (d) Potential energy.

30.   The metal that is most abundant in the earth is

        (a) Silicon

        (b) Iron

        (c) Aluminium

        (d) Nickel.

 

31.   A motorcycle passing by disturbs radio and TV reception. The                 disturbance is caused because

       (a) Intense sound waves shake the delicate electronic components of                     the receiver

       (b) Metallic parts of the vehicle deflect the radio waves

       (c) The sparking in the spark-plug of the vehicle generates                                     electromagnetic radiation

       (d) Modern motorcycle contains an electronic ignition system which                emits radio waves.

 

32.   Match the following scientists with their contributions:

        (a) Weismann                  I. Theory of Mutation

        (b) Darwin                       II. Principle of Independent Assortment

        (c) Mendal                       III. Theory of Evolution

        (d) Hugo-de-varis             IV. Continuity of Germplasm

       

        (a) I- (a) II-(b) III-(c) IV-(d)

        (b) I- (b) II-(c) III-(d) IV-(a)

        (c) I- (d) II-(c) III-(a) IV-(b)

        (d) I-(d) II-(c) III-(b) IV-(a).

 

33.   Who was the first Sultan of Delhi to introduce the practice of ‘Sijda’?

        (a) Balban

        (b) Muhammad Tughlaq

        (c) Alauddin Khilji

        (d) Firoz Tughlaq.

 

34.   Which of the following is rightly regarded as a milestone in the field of           education in India?

        (a) Sir Charles Wood’s Despatch

        (b) Stanley’s Despatch

        (c) Hunter Commission Report

        (d) University Commission.

 

35.    A Public Works Department was set up in India by

        (a) Lord Dalhousie

        (b) Lord Ripon

        (c) Lord Warren Hastings

        (d) Lord William Bentinck.

 

36.   The Theory of Economic Drain from India to England was propounded       by

        (a) R.C. Dutt

        (b) B.GTilak

        (c) Dadabhai Naoroji

        (d) L.K. Jha.

 

37.   The Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress held in                      September 1920, passed a resolution which led to the

        (a) Non-Cooperation Movement

        (b) Civil Disobedience Movement

        (c) Home Rule Movement

        (d) Quit India Movement.

 

38.    A cyclone is a system of wind in which the wind blows spirally

         (a) towards the centre of low pressure

         (b) towards central region of high pressure

         (c) towards a region of low pressure

         (d) outwards from a central region of high pressure.

 

39.     Contour bunding is used

          (a) to stop the winds in sandy deserts

          (b) to irrigate desert areas

          (c) to prevent erosion in hilly areas

          (d) None of the above.

 

 

40.    Which of the following is not a closed sea?

         (a) Caspian sea

         (b) Aral sea

         (c) Black sea

         (d) Red sea.

 

41.    If Greenwich Mean Time is ahead by 12 hours, the place may be (1°      = 4 minutes)

        (a) 180° West

        (b) 180° East

        (c) 90° West

        (d) None of the above.

 

42.   The orbit of the earth is an ellipse and not a circle. The distance                    between earth and sun thus varies. On January 3, earth is closest to          the sun (Perihelion). Similarly, earth is said to be at Aphelion, when it             is farthest from the sun on

        (a) March, 23

        (b) July, 4                                                                                                     (c) December, 23                                                                                        (d) April, 21.

43.   What is the meaning of ‘Gilt edged market’?

        (a) Market in Government securities

        (b) Market of smuggled goods

        (c) Market of auctioned goods

        (d) None of the above.

 

44.   “Reduction in rate of taxation leads to more than proportionate                     increase in tax yield”. This law is known as

         (a) Giffins Effect

         (b) Laffer Effect

         (c) Gresham’s Law

         (d) None of the above.

 

 

 

 

45.   The VDIS -Voluntary Disclosure of Income Scheme was the brainchild

        of

        (a) P. Chidambaram

        (b) Ram Jethmalani

        (c) Atal Behari Vajpayee

        (d) Sonia Gandhi.

 

46.    A company is said to be ‘Sick’ when the accumulated loss at the end            of any financial year leads to erosion of …………. percent of its net            wealth.

        (a) 100%

        (b) 75%

        (c) 50%

        (d) 25%.

47.   Gunnar Myrdal has dealt with the problem of Asian countries in her                book ASIAN DRAMA regarding

        (a) poverty

        (b) modern industries

        (c) military dictatorship

        (d) neo-colonialism

 

48.   Wealth tax on agricultural property is levied by

        (a) Central Government

        (b) State Governments

        (c) Both Central and State Governments

        (d) None of the above.

 

49.   One of the following statements was not among the Simon                               Commission’s recommendations:

        (a) Dyarchy to be abolished in the provinces

        (b) Reconstitution of the Central Legislature

        (c) Eestablishment of the Provincial Public Service Commission for all                Provinces

        (d) Indian Council is not needed to advice the Secretary of State for                   India.

 

50.   Which of the following are the principal features of Government of                 India Act, 1919?

        1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the                               provinces

        2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims

        3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces

        4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures

        Codes:

       (a) 1, 2 and 3

       (b) 1, 2 and 4

       (c) 2, 3 and 4

       (d) 1, 3 and 4

51.  There were ………….. Articles and …………. Schedules in the draft of the        Constitution of India.

       (a) 315, eight

       (b) 319, nine

       (c) 327, ten

       (d) 317 nine.

 

52.  The Indian National Congress asserted in ………….. that India would not        accept any constitution made by anyone other than people of India   and without outside interference.

       (a) 1942

       (b) 1936

       (c) 1927

       (d) 1935.

 

53.  Almost all political parties participated and contributed their share in        the formation of Indian Constitution. Which one of the following party        was not associated with the Constituent Assembly?

       (a) Communist Party of India

       (b) Indian National Congress

       (c) Hindu Mahasabha

       (d) Scheduled Castes Freedom.

 

54.  The expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India for which the   approval of Parliament is not necessary, according to the Constitution   of India, is called

       (a) Charged Expenditure

       (b) Extra Expenditure

       (c) Special Provision Fund

       (d) None of these.

 

55.  Proclamation of Emergency on the ground of internal disturbance was,     for the first time made in

      (a) 1971

      (b) 1972

      (c) 1974

      (d) 1975

 

56.  Which one of the following conditions regarding acquisition of                          citizenship by naturalisation has been wrongly listed?

       (a) He belongs to a country where citizens of India are permitted to                  acquire citizenship by naturalisation

       (b) He has been residing in India or serving the Government of India            for at least 10 years preceding the date of application

       (c) He possesses workable knowledge of an Indian language

       (d) He has consistently supported the Indian cause at various national                    and international forums.

 

57.  Which one of the following statements is correct?

      (a) The Right to Private Property was incorporated in the Constitution                   by the Forty-Second Amendment

      (b) The Right to Private Property was granted by the original                         Constitution but it has since been removed from the list of                     Fundamental Rights

      (c) The Right to Private Property was never a Fundamental Right, under           the Indian Constitution

      (d) The Right to Private Property which was granted by the original                     Constitution has been made more sacrosanct by the Forty-Forth                    Amendment.

 

58.  Which one of the following Directive Principles is non-Gandhian?

       (a) Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas

       (b) Prohibition of the use of intoxicants except for medicinal purposes

       (c) Prevention of slaughter of cow, calves and other milch cattle

       (d) Provision of free and compulsory education for all the children up                     to the age of fourteen years.

 

59.  Which one of the following steps cannot be taken by the President           during the Financial Emergency?

      (a) He can direct the Union and State Governments to observe such                canons of financial propriety as he deems desirable

      (b) He can suspend the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens

      (c) He can order reduction of salaries and allowances of all civil                             servants

      (d) He can order the reduction of the salaries of the Supreme Court and             High Court judges.

60.  A death sentence by a lower court

      (a) Must be confirmed by High Court

      (b) Must be confirmed by Supreme Court

      (c) Is operational if no appeal is made to higher courts

      (d) Must be confirmed by the President.

 

61.  How many members are required to support the introduction of a No-       Confidence Motion in the Lok Sabha?

      (a) Two-thirds of the membership of the House

      (b) 50 members

      (c) 80 members

      (d) 60 members.

 

62. The decision of a High Court is

      (a) Binding on other High Courts

      (b) Not binding on other High Courts

      (c) Occasionally binding on other High Courts

      (d) Of no value for other High Courts.

 

 

 

63.  Irresistible impulse is

       (a) not covered under insanity

       (b) covered under insanity

       (c) covered under certain specified circumstances

       (d) covered under circumstances leading to certain consequences.

 

64.  The Supreme Court in its judgement held that non-payment of      minimum wages is a type of forced labour.

       (a) Asiad Workers case

       (b) Minerva Mills case

       (c) Lokhandwala Mills case                                                                                 (d) T. Krishnamachari case.

65.   X duly posts a letter of acceptance to V. But the letter is lost in transit             by the negligence of the Post Office.

       (a) There is no contract concluded because the acceptance has not               reached the proposer

       (b) There is no contract concluded because the proposer had not                          received the letter

       (c) The contract is concluded because the acceptance is complete from          the date of despatch, notwithstanding any delay or miscarriage in                 its arrival from causes not within the acceptor’s control

       (d) None of these.

 

66.   Ramesh asks his servant to sell his cycle to him at a price less than          that of market price. This contract can be avoided by the servant on             the ground of

        (a) fraud

        (b) mistake

        (c) undue influence

        (d) coercion.

 

67.    In book depot, a catalogue of books enlisting the price of each book              and specifying the place where the particular book is available is

         (a) an invitation to offer

         (b) an offer

         (c) an invitation to visit the book shop

         (d) just a promise to make available the particular book at a                                particular place at the listed price

68.   Mark the incorrect answer:

        The main purpose of the Law of Contract is

        (a) The satisfaction of human desires in the highest practicable degree

        (b) where there are conflicting human interests and desires, by                    establishing a judicial and administrative system that acts with                    reasonable degree of uniformity

        (c) to do something in accordance with the norm of prescribed law

        (d) All of the above.

69.   Frustration of contract implies

        (a) commercial hardship

        (b) physical impossibility due to disappearance of the subject matter                 of the contract or the object has failed to materialise

        (c) Both (a) and (b)

        (d) Neither (a) nor (b).

 

70.   With the approval of the Parliament the National Emergency can                 continue for

        (a) a maximum period of three years

        (b) a maximum period of one year

        (c) an indefinite period

        (d) a maximum period of six months.

 

71.   Libel is addressed to the eye; slander to the ear. State which of the             following statements are slander:

        (a) Slanderous words uttered by the characters on the dramatic stage

        (b) Slanderous words uttered by the characters on the cinema screen

        (c) Abuses recorded in the gramophone disc

        (d) Both (b) and (c).

 

72.   Choose the correct statement:

        Doctrine of double jeopardy means

        (a) a person should not be punished more than once for the same                         offence

        (b) a person should be punished more than once for the same offence

        (c) a man may be put twice in peril for the same offence

        (d) a man may commit the same offence twice but will get                                   punishment once only.

 

73.    “What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly”. This                 statement epitomises the doctrine of

          (a) pith and substance                                                                                      (b) implied powers

          (c) ancillary powers

          (d) colourable legislation.

 

74.    The 39th Amendment laid that election of any person to Lok Sabha                 holding the office of Prime Minister cannot be challenged before a             Court of Law, but only before an authority established by Parliament.                This was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in

         (a) Keshvananda Bharti Case

         (b) Maneka Gandhi Case

         (c) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain Case

         (d) None of the above.

 

75.    The Janata Party Government of Morarjee Desai constituted …………. to        find out the truth about the excesses committed by the Indira Gandhi         Government during emergency (1975-77)

         (a) Shahbano Commission

         (b) Jagmohan Commission

         (c) Shah Commission

         (d) Nayyar Commission.

 

76.    Public holidays are declared under

         (a) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

         (b) Contract Act, 1872

         (c) Public Employees Act, 1967

         (d) None of the above.

 

77.    According to law, the maximum number of people who can form a         partnership firm is

        (a) 10

        (b) 20

       (c) 30

       (d) No limit.

78.   A Hindu wife can marry immediately after divorce. A Muslim wife

       (a) can also marry immediately

       (b) has to wait till period of Iddat (seclusion) is over

       (c) has to wait for one year

       (d) None of the above.

 

79.  Sometimes, an accused seeks pardon from the court and offers to give            evidence against all others involved in a crime. He is called

       (a) witness

       (b) clone

       (c) approver

       (d) accomplice.

80.  Under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the minimum compensation to be         awarded in case of death (vide 1994 amendment) is

       (a) Rs. 25,000

       (b) Rs. 30,000

       (c) Rs. 40,000

       (d) Rs. 50,000.

 

81.  What is the legal meaning of the word ‘Battery’?

       (a) Cells, as used in torch, tape recorder etc.

       (b) Battering a person to death

       (c) Actual or intended striking of another person

       (d) Assault resulting in, at least, 6 months’ hospitalisation.

 

82.  Match the following:

      (A) Malfeasance            I. One who falsely pretends to be sick

      (B) Malingerer              II. Minor offences

      (C) Misdemeanour        III. Improper performance of legal duty

      (D) Misfeasance            IV. Doing an unlawful act

      (a) I-A II-B III-C IV-D

      (b) I-B lI-C III-D IV-A

      (c) I-C II-D III-A IV-B

      (d) I-D II-A IIl-B IV-C.

83.   Once appointed, judges of Supreme Court serve till they attain the age           of

       (a) 62 years

       (b) 63 years

       (c) 64 years

       (d) 65 years.

 

84.  Gangaram is a wood-cutter. He earns his livelihood by cutting forest      trees in Nainital, Uttaranchal. The State of Uttaranchal makes a law    prohibiting the cutting of forest trees. Is Gangaram’s Constitutional Right infringed?

       (a) Yes. Because he may not like to do any other job to earn his bread                  and butter

        (b) No. Because the Government is sovereign and can make any law

        (c) Yes. Because he has a fundamental right to life and livelihood                     under Article 21 of the Constitution and the Government cannot                    snatch away his bread and butter by making such a law

       (d) No. Because the Government has power to make a law for                    prohibiting the cutting of forest trees under Article 48A of the                      Constitution.

 

85.  Culpable homicide means causing death

       (a) with the intention of causing death

       (b) with the intension of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause           death

       (c) with the knowledge that by such act death is likely to be caused

       (d) All the above.

 

86.   X takes away a girl out of the custody of her lawful guardians. Which     of the following statements is a complete defence if X is charged under   section 361 of the Indian Penal Code for kidnapping on the ground that         the girl was below the age of eighteen years when taken away?

       (a) The girl was a student in a college and could understand what was           right or wrong for her

       (b) The girl was mistreated by the guardians and X promised her a                    better life

      (c) The girl looked more than 18 years of age and the accused had                satisfied himself that she was more than 18 years of age

      (d) None of these.

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

 

87.  LEGAL PRINCIPLE:   The occupier of a premises owes a duty of care to                                    all his invitees and visitors.

    FACTUAL SITUATION:

       Laloo was running a dairy from his house. People used a part of his    farm as a short cut to get to a nearby railway station. Laloo who did not approve of this, put up a notice that    ‘Trespassers will be prosecuted’. However, since a number of these people were also his customers he tolerated them. One day, a person     who was using this short cut was attacked by a bull belonging to the farm. The injured    person filed a suit against him.

DECISION:

        (a) Laloo is liable for having kept a bull on his farm

        (b) Laloo is not liable in view of the clear notice against trespassers

        (c) Laloo is liable because in fact he allowed the people to use his                  premises

        (d) Laloo is not liable to the people other than his customers.

 

Directions: In each of the following questions, a series of letters or numbers has been arranged in some sequence. Below each are given alternative responses. Find out the correct response.

 

88.     2, 6, 14, 11, 15, 23, 20, 24,            , 29

         (a) 31

         (b) 29

         (c) 28

         (d) 32.

 

 

 

89.    97, 86, 73,           ,45, 34

        (a) 54

        (b) 56

        (c) 58

        (d) 60.

 

90.   MOQ, SUM, YAC,

       (a) FIL

       (b) DHJ

       (c) EGI

       (d) XAD.

 

91.   KWZ, MOX, OIV, QET,

       (a) SAQ

       (b) SUR

       (c) RAP

       (d) SCR.

Directions: The following five (5) items consist of two Statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the Reason R. You are to examine these two Statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer accordingly.

 

Code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true.

 

92.   Assertion (A):  A stranger to a contract has no right to enforce it                                                                                                  against the parties to the contract.

        Reason (R):     Privity of contract between the parties is essential for                               enforcement of contract.

 

93.   Assertion (A):      A finder of a thing has title to it.

        Reason (R):        The finder’s title to a thing is superior to that of the                                       owner.

 

94.   Assertion (A):   A minor is not competent to enter into any contract,                                    even for necessaries.

        Reason (R):      For necessaries supplied to a minor, his estate can be                                     made liable to reimburse.

 

95.   Assertion (A):    A legal right is a legally protected interest.

        Reason (R):      An element of advantage is essential to constitute a                                        right.

 

96.   Assertion (A):  Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.

        Reason (R):     Custom represents common consciousness of people.

Directions: In each of the following questions one statement is followed by two arguments (A) and (B) one supporting and the other against it. Mark.

(a) If only argument (A) is strong

(b) If only argument (B) is strong

(c) If either (A) or (B) is strong

(d) If both (A) and (B) are strong.

 

97.  Statement:   Should India adopt a Presidential system?

       Arguments:

      (A) Yes – Because our experience of Parliamentary democracy is                      disappointing.

      (B) No – Because it will concentrate power in the hands of a few                            people.

 

98.   Statement: Should the death sentence be abolished?

        Arguments:

       (A) Yes – The death sentence deprives the culprit of all chances of                 improving his behaviour.

       (B) No – Capital punishment restrains criminal tendency.

Directions: In the following question, a statement is followed by two conclusions (A) and (B). You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and consider both the conclusions together, and then decide which of the two given conclusions logically follow beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Mark.

(a) if only conclusion (A) follows

(b) if only conclusion (B) follows

(c) If either (A) or (B) follows (d) If neither (A) nor (B) follows.

 

99.  Statement:  The greatest advantage of democracy over all other forms                                 of governments is not that the men who have gone to the                                 top are exceptionally wise, but that since their power                                    depends upon popular support, they know that they                                        cannot retain their position if they are guilty of more than                            a modicum of injustice.

Conclusions:

        (A) In a democracy, persons in power cannot act arbitrarily.

        (B) Democratic countries cannot have excellent leaders.

100.    I go 100 metres towards North from my house, then I turn left and            go 200 metres, then turning left I go 200 metres, then again turning    left I go 100 metres, and then turning left again I go 100 metres. In            which direction am I now from my house?

          (a) West

          (b) East

          (c) North

          (d) South.

 

Directions: Some information is provided in the form of statements. On the basis of that information find the answer to the questions which follow.

 

1. A cube has six sides each of a different colour

2. The red side is opposite black

3. The green side is between red and black

4. The blue side is adjacent to white

5. The brown side is adjacent to blue

6. The red side is face down.

101.  The side opposite to brown is

         (a) Red

         (b) Black

         (c) White

         (d) Green.

102.   The four colours adjacent to green are

          (a) Red, Black, Blue and White

          (b) Red, Black, Brown and Blue

          (c) Red, Black, Brown and White

          (d) Black, Blue, White and Red.

 

103.    K is L’s wife’s husband’s brother. M is the sister of K.N is the sister                  of L. How is K related to L?

          (a) Sister-in-law

          (b) Brother

          (c) Daughter

          (d) Wife.

 

104.    Atul is the son of Zamir. Alka is the daughter of Aman. Sheela is the                   wife of Aman. Mohan is the son of Sheela. How is Alka related to                  Mohan?

          (a) Sister

          (b) Uncle

          (c) Son

          (d) Father.

 

Five adults A, B, C, D and E are sitting at Bharat Provision Store. In the group, there is one Manager, one Accountant, one Supplier of provisions. The Accountant, who has a child earns least money. A, who is married to C’s sister, earns more than the Manager. D is an unmarried lady and does not do any work. There is one married couple in a group of which B is husband, E is the brother of C and is neither a Supplier nor an Accountant. No lady is a Supplier or Manager. C is neither a Supplier nor an Accountant.

105.   Who is Accountant?

          (a) A

          (b) B

          (c) C

          (d) D

106.    Who is Supplier?

           (a) A

           (b) B

           (c) C

           (d) D

 

107.    Who is the wife of B?

           (a) A  

           (b) B

           (c) C

           (d) E

 

108.    Who is earning the highest?

           (a) A

           (b) B  

           (c) C

           (d) D

 

109.    Who is the sister of C?

           (a) A

           (b) B

           (c) E

           (d) D

 

110.    It is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, the fourth,                and the eleventh letters of word ‘CONTROVERSIAL’ write the first               letter of that word.

           (a) I    

           (b) N

           (c) S

           (d) T

111.   If (a) ‘Chip din chunk’ means student attends class; (b) ‘din sunk              dink’ means Arjuna is student; (c) ‘jump nink sink’ means schools are   good; (d) ‘dink mup chimp’ means teacher is good, then what is the               code for Arjuna?

          (a) din

          (b) sunk

          (c) dink

          (d) chunk.

 

Directions: In the following groups one does not belong to that group. Find the odd one.

 

112.  (a) Cheese

        (b) Saffron

        (c) Pepper

        (d) Lard.

 

113. (a) Hansom

       (b) Victoria

       (c) Growler

       (d) Baroque.

 

Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question.

However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards implausible, superfluous or incompatible with the passage.

 

 

 

 

Consumer advocate: Businesses are typically motivated primarily by the desire to make as great a profit as possible, and advertising helps businesses to achieve this goal. But it is clear that the motive of maximizing profits does not impel businesses to present accurate information in their advertisements. It follows that consumers should be sceptical of the claims made in advertisements.

 

114.   Each of the following, if true, would strengthen the consumer                          advocate’s argument EXCEPT

          (a) Businesses know that they can usually maximize their profits by                       using inaccurate information in their advertisements

          (b) Businesses have often included inaccurate information in their                 advertisements

          (c) Many consumers have a cynical attitude toward advertising

          (d) Those who create advertisements are less concerned with the                 accuracy than with the creativity of advertisements.

 

Science columnist: It is clear why humans have so many diseases in common with cats. Many human diseases are genetically based, and cats are genetically closer to humans than are any other mammals except non-human primates. Each of the genes identified so far in cats has an exact counterpart in humans.

 

115.   Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the science                        columnist’s explanation for the claim that humans have so many              diseases in common with cats?

          (a) Cats have built up resistance to many of the diseases they have                 in common with humans

          (b) Most diseases that humans have in common with cats have no                   genetic basis

          (c) Cats have more diseases in common with nonhuman primates                       than with humans

          (d) Many of the diseases humans have in common with cats are mild                   and are rarely diagnosed.

 

Psychologist: It is well known that becoming angry often induces temporary incidents of high blood pressure. A recent study further showed, however, that people who are easily angered are significantly more likely to have permanently high blood pressure than are people who have more tranquil personalities. Coupled with the long established fact that those with permanently high blood pressure are especially likely to have heart disease, the recent findings indicate that heart disease can result from psychological factors.

 

116.   Which one of the following would, if true, most weaken the                       psychologist’s argument?

          (a) Those who are easily angered are less likely to recover fully from                   episodes of heart disease than are other people

          (b) Medication designed to control high blood pressure can greatly                      affect the moods of those who use it

          (c) People with permanently high blood pressure who have tranquil                   personalities virtually never develop heart disease

          (d) The physiological factors that cause permanently high blood                         pressure generally make people quick to anger.

 

A professor of business placed a case-study assignment for her class on her university’s computer network. She later found out that instead of reading the assignment on the computer screen, 50 out of the 70 students printed it out on paper. Thus, it is not the case that books delivered via computer will make printed books obsolete.

 

117.   Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

          (a) Several colleagues of the professor have found that, in their non-                   business courses, several of their students behave similarly in                   relation to assignments placed on the computer network

          (b) Studies consistently show that most computer users will print                       reading material that is more than a few pages in length rather                 than read it on the computer screen

          (c) Some people get impaired vision from long periods of reading                  printed matter on computer screens, even if they use high quality             computer screens

          (d) Scanning technology is very poor, causing books delivered via                 computer to be full of errors unless editors carefully read the                    scanned versions.

Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question.

 

A panel reviews six contract bids – H, J, K, R, S, and T. No two bids have the same cost. Exactly one of the bids is accepted. The following conditions must hold:

 

1.   The accepted bid is either K or R and is either the second or the third         

      lowest in cost

2.   H is lower in cost than each of J and K

3.   If J is the fourth lowest in cost, then J is higher in cost than each of S       

      and T

4.   If J is not the fourth lowest in cost, then J is higher in cost than each of

      S and T

5.   Either R or S is the fifth lowest in cost.

 

118. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the bids in order         from lowest to highest in cost?

       (a) T, K, H, S, J, R

       (b) H, T, K, S, R, J

       (c) H, S, T, K, R, J

       (d) H, K, S, J, R, T

 

119. Which one of the following bids CANNOT be the fourth lowest in cost?

        (a) H

        (b) J

        (c) K

        (d) R

 

120. Which one of the following bids CANNOT be the second lowest in cost?

       (a) H

       (b) J

       (c) K

       (d) R

 

Detectives investigating a citywide increase in burglaries questioned exactly seven suspects – S, T, V, W, X, Y and Z – each on a different one of seven consecutive days. Each suspect was questioned exactly once. Any suspect who confessed did so while being questioned. The investigation conformed to the following:

 

1. T was questioned on day three.

2. The suspect questioned on day four did not confess.

3. S was questioned after W was questioned.

4. Both X and V were questioned after Z was questioned.

5. No suspects confessed after W was questioned.

6. Exactly two suspects confessed after T were questioned.

 

121. Which one of the following could be true?

       (a) X was questioned on day one

       (b) V was questioned on day two  

       (c) Z was questioned on day four

       (d) W was questioned on day five

 

122. If Z was the second suspect to confess, then each of the following                   statements could be true EXCEPT:

       (a) T confessed

       (b) T did not confess

       (c) V did not confess

       (d) Y did not confess.

 

123. Find the least number that when divided by 16, 18 and 20 leaves a              remainder 4 in each case, but is completely divisible by 7.

       (a) 364

       (b) 2254

       (c) 2884

       (d) 3234

 

124. The average age of three boys is 15 years. If their ages are in the        ratio 3:5:7, the age of the youngest boy is

       (a) 21 years

       (b) 18 years

      (c) 15 years

      (d) 9 years.

 

125.  A’s salary is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. The            result is the same as B’s salary increased by 20% and then reduced             by 25%. Find the ratio of B’s salary to that of A’s?

        (a) 4:3

        (b) 11 : 10

        (c) 10 : 9

        (d) 12 : 11.

 

126.  A man sells 5 articles for Rs. 15 and makes a profit of 20%. Find his               gain or loss percent if he sells 8 such articles for Rs. 18.40.

        (a) 2.22% profit

        (b) 2.22% loss

        (c) 8% loss

        (d) 8% profit.

 

127.  What is the simple interest for 9 years on a sum of Rs. 800 if the rate    of interest for the first 4 years is 8% per annum and for the last 4            years is 6% per annum?

        (a) 400

        (b) 392

        (c) 352

        (d) Cannot be determined.

 

128.  In Ramnagar Colony, the ratio of school going children to non-school              going children is 5 : 4. If in the next year, the number of non-school                 going children is increased by 20%, making it 35,400, what is the            new ratio of school going children to non-school going children?

        (a) 4 : 5

        (b) 3 : 2

        (c) 25 : 24

        (d) None of these.

 

 

129.  Amar and Akbar left Bhubaneshwar simultaneously and travelled            towards Cuttack. Amar’s speed was 15 km/h and that of Akbar was               12 km/h. Half an hour later, Anthony left Bhubaneshwar and travelled      in the same direction. Some time later, he overtook Akbar and 90             minutes further on he overtook Amar. Find Anthony’s speed.

        (a) 18 kmph

        (b) 24 kmph

        (c) 12 kmph

        (d) 16 kmph.

 

130.  Five boys and three girls are sitting in a row of eight seats. In how            many ways can they be seated so that not all girls sit side by side?

        (a) 36,000

        (b) 45,000

        (c) 24,000

        (d) None of these.

 

131.  A bag contains 5 red, 4 green and 3 black balls. If three balls are                  drawn out of it at random, find the probability of drawing exactly 2                 red balls.

 

        (a) 7/22

        (b) 10/33

        (c) 7/12

        (d) 7/11.

 

132.  Ajit can do as much work in 2 days as Baljit can do in 3 days and            Baljit can do as much in 4 days as Diljit in 5 days. A piece of work                takes 20 days if all work together. How long would Baljit take to do all    the work by himself?

        (a) 82 days

        (b) 44 days

        (c) 66 days

        (d) 50 days.

 

133. “Project Tiger” was launched in

         (a) 1973

       (b) 1974

       (c) 1978

       (d) 1981.

 

134. Which of the following fighter aircraft was flown by former President      Pratibha Patil?

       (a) F-16

       (b) MI-30

       (c) Jaguar

       (d) Sukhoi-30MKI.

 

135. The name “Baichung Bhutia” is associated with

        (a) Football

        (b) Hockey

        (c) Polo

        (d) Cricket.

 

136. The present Chairperson of the National Human Right Commission of        India is

       (Options Modified)

       (a) R.C. Lahoti

       (b) K.G. Balakrishnan

       (c) J.S. Verma

       (d) A.S. Anand.

 

137. The present Secretary General of United Nations Organisation is

        (a) Condoleeza Rice

        (b) Shashi Tharoor

        (c) Ban ki-Moon

        (d) Kofi Annan.

 

138. Who is the author of the book “My Life”?

       (a) Bill Clinton

       (b) Tony Blair

       (c) Hillary Clinton

       (d) Dalai Lama.

 

139. “Golden Handshake” is the term associated with

        (a) Share Market

        (b) Investment of Gold

        (c) Voluntary Retirement

        (d) Marriage without Dowry Benefits

 

140. National Disaster Management Authority is constituted under

       (a) Natural Calamities Management Act, 2005

       (b) Disaster Management Act, 2005

       (c) Planning Commission Decision

       (d) Cabinet Decision.

 

141. Indian Airlines (New name: Air India) have redesigned their logo which     is a graphic wheel. This logo has been inspired from which one of the following?

       (a) Khajuraho Temple

       (b) Sim Temple, Konark

       (c) Mamallapuram Temples

       (d) Hampi Temples.

 

142. Who has been recently awarded Officer de La Legion’ Honor, the       highest award of France?

       (a) Shatrughan Sinha

       (b) Lata Mangeshkar

       (c) Amitabh Bachchan

       (d) Aishwarya Rai.

 

Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Tor some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions.

 

Most people acknowledge that not all governments have a moral right to govern and that there are sometimes morally legitimate reasons for disobeying the law, as when a particular law prescribes behaviour that is clearly immoral. It is also commonly supposed that such cases are special exceptions and that, in general, the fact that something is against the law counts as a moral, as well as legal, ground for not doing it; i.e., we generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply because it is the law. But the theory known as philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing instead that people who live under the jurisdiction of governments have no moral duty to those governments to obey their laws. Some commentators have rejected this position because of what they take to be its highly counter-intuitive implications: (a) that no existing government is morally better than any other (since all are, in a sense, equally illegitimate), and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any laws, people may do as they please without scruple. In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not entail these claims.                                                                                                First, the conclusion that no government is morally better than any other does not follow from the claim that nobody owes moral obedience to any government. Even if one denies that there is a moral obligation to follow the laws of any government, one can still evaluate the morality of the policies and actions of various governments. Some governments do more good than harm, and others more harm than good, to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights of individuals more regularly, systematically, and seriously than others. In short, it is perfectly consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that governments vary widely in their moral stature.

Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all individuals have basic, non-legal moral duties to one another-duties not to harm others in their lives, liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws have no moral force, individuals still have duties to refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault, theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists hold that people have a positive moral obligation to care for one another, a moral obligation that they might even choose to discharge by supporting co-operative efforts by governments to help those in need. And where others are abiding by established laws, even those laws derived from mere conventions, individuals are morally bound not to violate those laws when doing so would endanger others. Thus, if others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the right, one must not endanger them by driving on the left, for, even though driving on the left is not inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to deliberately harm the innocent.

 

143. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?

       (a) Some views that certain commentators consider to be implications                 of philosophical anarchism are highly counter-intuitive

       (b) Contrary to what philosophical anarchists claim, some governments              are morally superior to others and citizens under legitimate                       governments have moral obligations to one another

       (c) It does not follow logically from philosophical anarchism that no                government is morally better than any other or that people have              no moral duties toward one another

       (d) Even if, as certain philosophical anarchists claim, governmental               laws lack moral force, people still have a moral obligation to refrain        from harming one another.

 

144.  The author identifies which one of the following as a commonly held                 belief?

        (a) In most cases we are morally obligated to obey the law simply              because it is the law

        (b) All governments are in essence morally equal

        (c) We are morally bound to obey only those laws we participate in                establishing

        (d) Most crimes are morally neutral, even though they are illegal.

 

145. The author’s stance regarding the theory of philosophical anarchism   can most accurately be described as one of

       (a) ardent approval of most aspects of the theory

       (b) apparent acceptance of some of the basic positions of the theory

       (c) concerned pessimism about the theory’s ability to avoid certain                extreme views

       (d) hesitant rejection of some of the central features of the theory.

 

146. By attributing to commentators the view that philosophical anarchism   has implications that are “counter-intuitive”, the author most likely      means that the commentators believe that

        (a) the implications conflict with some commonly held belief^

        (b) there is little empirical^ evidence that the implications are actually                tnfe

       (c) common sense indicates that philosophical anarchism does not              have such implications

       (d) the implications appear to be incompatible with each other.

 

 

 

147. Which one of the following scenarios most completely conforms to the       view attributed to philosophical anarchists in third paragraph?

       (a) A member of a political party that is illegal in a particular country                 divulges the names of other members because he fears legal                         penalties

        (b) A corporate executive chooses to discontinue illegally when she                  learns that the chemicals are contaminating the water supply

        (c) A person who knows that a co-worker has stolen funds from their                    employer decides to do nothing because the co¬worker is widely                     admired

        (d) A person neglects to pay her taxes, even though it is likely that               she will suffer severe legal penalties as a consequence, because                   she wants to use the money to finance a new business.

 

148. It can be inferred that the author would be most likely to agree that

       (a) people are subject to more moral obligations than is generally held                   to be the case

        (b) governments that are morally superior recognize that their citizens          are not morally bound to obey their laws

        (c) one may have good reason to support the efforts of one’s                         government even if one has no moral duty to obey its laws

       (d) there are some sound arguments for claiming that most                                    governments have a moral right to require obedience to their laws.

 

149. The author’s discussion of people’s positive moral duty to care for one        another function primarily to

       (a) demonstrate that governmental efforts to help those in need are                superfluous

       (b) suggest that philosophical anarchists maintain that laws that foster             the common good are extremely rare

       (c) imply that the theoretical underpinnings of philosophical anarchise         are inconsistent with certain widely held moral truths

       (d) indicate that philosophical anarchists recognise that people are                    subject to substantial moral obligations.

 

 

 

150. In the passage, the author seeks primarily to

       (a) describe the development and theoretical underpinnings of a                        particular theory

        (b) establish that a particular theory conforms to the dictates of                            common sense

       (c) argue that two necessary implications of a particular theory are                    morally acceptable

       (d) defend a particular theory against its critics by showing that their                 arguments are mistaken.

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